Showing posts with label MECHANICAL ENGINEERING. Show all posts
Showing posts with label MECHANICAL ENGINEERING. Show all posts

Friday, October 23, 2020

Mechanical Engineering Top mcq

 Mechanical Engineering Model mcq for Upcoming Exam.


01. In Rankine cycle, the work output from the turbine is given by __________.


A. change of internal energy between inlet and outlet


B. change of enthalpy between inlet and outlet


C. change of entropy between inlet and outlet


D. change of temperature between inlet and outlet

Correct Answer: B


The Rankine cycle is an idealized thermodynamic cycle of a heat engine that converts heat into mechanical work while undergoing phase change. It is an idealized cycle in which friction losses in each of the four components are neglected.


 

02. If a reheater is added to a Rankine Cycle, then usually ___________.


A. the network increases and dryness fraction at the exit of turbine increases.


B. the network and efficiency decrease


C. the network remains same and efficiency increases


D. the network increases and efficiency remains same



Correct Answer: A


Reheat Rankine Cycle is essentially a modification of simple Rankine cycle.


In reheating the dryness fraction of steam at the exit increases and also network increases. 


The thermal efficiency may increase or may decrease depending upon the mean temperature of heat addition.



03. In an axial flow compressor, when the degree of reaction is 50%, it implies that


A. Work done is compression will be the least


B. 50% stages of the compressor will be ineffective


C. Pressure after compression will be optimum


D. The compressor will have symmetrical blades



Correct Answer: D


 



04. Which type of compressor is commonly used in a gas turbine plant?


A. Reciprocating compressor


B. Screw compressor


C. Multistage axial flow compressor


D. Either (A) & (B)



Correct Answer: C


Multistage axial flow compressor is the compressor in practical usage in a gas turbine plant.


 



05. The psychrometric chart graphically represents


A. Interrelation of air temperature and moisture.


B. Interrelation of air pressure and moisture.


C. Interrelation of volume and temperature.


D. Interrelation of pressure and temperature.




Correct Answer: A


The atmosphere is a mixture of air (oxygen and nitrogen) and water vapour. Psychrometry is the study of moist air and of the changes in its conditions.

A psychrometric chart is a graphical representation of the physical and thermal properties of atmospheric air for a particular barometric pressure. Most charts are constructed to be used at a barometric pressure of 101.325 kPa (normal atmospheric pressure at sea level).




06. In psychrometric chart, which lines have highest slope?


A. WBT (wet bulb temp.)


B. h. (sp. Enthalpy)


C. Relative humidity


D. v (specific volume)




Correct Answer: D


In psychrometric chart, specific volume lines have highest slope.

 



07. In a psychrometric chart, relative humidity lines are:


A. Curved


B. Inclined and straight but non-uniformly spaced


C. Horizontal and non-uniformly spaced


D. Horizontal and uniformly spaced




Correct Answer: A


In psychrometric chart, relative humidity (RH) lines are curved having positive slope from zero to infinite.

 




08. Which of the following properties of refrigerant is not desirable?


A. Low boiling point


B. High critical temperature


C. Specific volume at the inlet of compressor must be high


D. Low Viscosity



Correct Answer: C


Work input to the compressor is directly dependent upon the volume at the inlet of compressor.


More the volume, more will be the work.


Thus, it is undesirable.


All others are desirable.



09. The Mollier diagram of a pure substance is a


A. h-s diagram


B. T-s diagram


C. P-h diagram


D. h-P diagram




Correct Answer: A


The Mollier diagram of a pure substance is enthalpy(h) vs. entropy(s) diagram.


So, the correct option is (a).







10. The cutting force in punching and blanking operations mainly depends on


A. the modulus of elasticity of metal.


B. the shear strength of metal


C. the bulk modulus of metal


D. the yield strength of metal



Correct Answer: B.

 





11. Which of the following welding technique requires vacuum for its application?


A. Laser-Beam welding


B. Electron-Beam welding


C. Atomic Hydrogen welding


D. Electroslag welding



Correct Answer: B


Electron beam welding is a fusion joining process that produces electron beam in a vacuum which is impinged with high energy to heat the weld joint.

So, the correct option is (b).

 

12. Riser is provided to compensate ____.


A. Only liquid shrinkage


B. Only solidification shrinkage


C. Both liquid and solid shrinkage


D. Both liquid and solidification shrinkage




Correct Answer: D


Both liquid and solidification shrinkage can be compensated by providing the riser. Solid shrinkage is compensated by increasing the size of pattern in the form of shrinkage allowance.

So, the correct option is (d).

 



13. Relation between velocity and radius in Forced vortex motion is


A. Inversely proportional


B. Directly proportional


C. No relation exists


D. Constant



Correct Answer: B

 




14. An adjustable blade turbine is called _______.


A. Propeller Turbine


B. Kaplan Turbine


C. Pelton Turbine


D. Banki Turbine




Correct Answer: B


A Kaplan turbine is basically a propeller with adjustable blades inside a tube.


It is a type of axial flow reaction turbine.


 

15. Specific speed of a pump depends upon_____.


A. Speed, head and discharge


B. Discharge and power


C. Speed and head


D. Speed, power and head




Correct Answer: A











16. When two systems are in thermal equilibrium with a third system, they are in thermal equilibrium with each other, this law is known as


A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics


B. First law of thermodynamics


C. Second law of thermodynamics


D. None of these



Correct Answer: A


The zeroth law of thermodynamics states that if two thermodynamic systems are each in thermal equilibrium with a third one, then they are in thermal equilibrium with each other. 

 




17. A system will be thermodynamic equilibrium only if it is in __________.


A) Thermal equilibrium


B) Mechanical equilibrium


C) Chemical equilibrium

A. only A

B. only B

C. only C

D. A, B and C


Correct Answer: D


A system is said to be in equilibrium when system has achieved all the four equilibrium as given below

Thermal equilibrium,

Mechanical equilibrium,

Chemical equilibrium

No phase changes.

 



18. Newton’s first law of motion is also known as


A. the Law of Conservation of Momentum


B. the Law of Inertia


C. gravity


D. Coulomb’s law




Correct Answer: B


According to first law of motion an object will remain at rest or in a uniform state of motion unless that state is changed by an external force. This is also known as the law of inertia.







19. Bearings are compared based on their load carrying capacity, therefore the bearing whose load carrying capacity is independent of speed is;


A. Hydrostatic bearing


B. Hydrodynamic bearing


C. Rolling contact bearing


D. Sliding contact bearing



Correct Answer: A


For hydrostatic bearing, the load carrying capacity is independent of speed, as constant thickness of fluid film is presented by external pump throughout the operation.








20. A wire rope is designated by 8×19, find the no. of wire in each strand ______.


A. 8


B. 19


C. 152


D. Can’t be determined



Correct Answer: B


Designation of wire rope: m×n


Where m: no. of strands


n: no. of wire in each strand.







21. Which of the following is not a hardness test.


A. Brinell’s test


B. Vickers’s test


C. Izod test


D. Knoop test




Correct Answer: C


Izod test is a toughness test whereas all others are Hardness measuring test.








22. The phenomenon of slow extension of materials having constant load, i.e. increasing with the time is called


A. Creep


B. Yielding


C. Breaking


D. Plastic flow



Correct Answer: A


creep (sometimes called cold flow) is the tendency of a solid material to move slowly or deform permanently under the influence of persistent mechanical stresses. It can occur as a result of long-term exposure to high levels of stress that are still below the yield strength of the material. Since there is a constant load and stress increases with time, phenomenon is Creeping






23. Diamond Pyramid Hardness is related to __________.


A. Brinell Hardness Test


B. Vickers Hardness Test


C. Rockwell Hardness Test


D. None of above




Correct Answer: B


The Rockwell hardness test is used for finding hardness of ferrous and nonferrous metals.








24. When a rectangular beam is loaded transversely, the maximum tensile stress is developed on the


A. Top layer


B. Bottom layer


C. Neutral axis


D. At any cross section



Correct Answer: A


When a rectangular beam is loaded transversely, the maximum tensile stress is developed on the top layer.








25. The shape of a cantilever beam for uniformly distributed load will be


A. Straight line


B. Parabolic


C. Elliptical


D. None of these



Correct Answer: B


The shape of a cantilever beam for uniformly distributed load will be parabolic.









26. Which of the following is a dimensionless quantity?


A. Stress


B. Strain


C. Poisson’s ratio


D. Both (b) and (c)




Correct Answer: D


Both strain and Poisson’s ratio are a dimensionless quantity.










27. The bending stress is zero at


A. Top fibre


B. Bottom fibre


C. Neutral axis


D. Between top fibre and neutral axis




Correct Answer: C











28. The method of obtaining different mechanism by fixing different links of a kinematic chain is known as:


A. Structure


B. Mechanism


C. Inversion


D. None of these



Correct Answer: C











29. Permanent deformation of material with respect to time due to constant load and variable temperature is known as _________.


A. Elasticity


B. Isotropy


C. Hardness


D. Creep



Correct Answer: D


Creep may be defined as a time-dependent permanent deformation at elevated temperature and constant stress.


Creep deformation occurs due to grain-boundary sliding, the more grain boundary area, the easier creep deformation will be. Thus, Creep deformation and creep strength are a grain-size sensitive property.



30. The system of forces whose line of action meet at a common point and there is no net force or a resultant force due to their effect is called____________.


A. Coplanar Forces


B. Collinear Forces


C. Concurrent Forces


D. Independent Forces



Correct Answer: C


Concurrent Forces are system of forces whose line of action meet at a common point and there is no net force or a resultant force due to their effect. When their line of action is extended, they will meet at a common point.








31. In a perfect truss, the numbers of members should be


Where J is the number of joints.


A. 2J – 3


B. J-1


C. 2J-1


D. 3J-2


Correct Answer: A


A perfect truss the number of members is equal to L = 2J – 3


A perfect truss is one in which the number of members is sufficient to keep it in equilibrium.


Saturday, June 15, 2019

Technical Awareness mcq Quick points For upcoming exam.



01. Reciprocating pump is also called 

positive
displacement pump.

02. Hydraulic ram works on the principle of

inertia forces of water in the supply line

SOLUTION
Hydraulic ram is pump that lifts small quantities of water to greater heights from large quantities of water available at smaller heights.

03. In laminar flow through circular pipe, the friction factor depends upon

Reynolds number only.

04. The work done in a free expansion
process is 

Zero.

05. Constant volume process is also known
as


lsochoric or lsometric 

SOLUTION
Constant Volume- lsochoric or lsometric.

Constant Pressure-
lsobaric or lsopiestic

Constant Temperature-
lsothermal


06. Which of the following flux coating
materials act as an arc stabilizers?

Potassium Silicate

SOLUTION
Arc Stabilizers is
Sodium Oxide, Potassium Oxide and
Potassium Silicate.

07. Nature of fluid flow in pipe (laminar)
depend upon

Average velocity and 
Reynold's No.

08. A low head axial flow turbine is

Kaplan

SOLUTION
Kaplan turbines is a low head axial flow turbine.

09. In inventory control theory, the economic
order quantity is

Optimum lot size.

SOLUTION
Economic order quantity is that size of order which minimizes total annual cost of carrying inventory and cost of ordering under the assumed conditions of certainty and that annual demands.

10. Hobbing tool is a

multi point cutting tool.

11. Which of the following is true about nose radius of the tool?

It provides better surface
finish.

It strengthen the tool
nose by reducing stress
concentration.

It increases tool life.

All of the above.

12. Which of the following is an independent variable in the cutting process?

Lubrication.

SOLUTION
Dependent variable is
Force or power requirements, maximum temperature in cutting, Surface finish.

13. Which of the following relation represent the torsional stiffness of shaft?

GJ/L.

SOLUTION
Where 
G = Shear modulus of elasticity.
J = Polar moment of inertia.
L = Length of shaft.

14. A bar held between two rigid supports it will be subjected to compressive stress if it is

Heated.

15. If gas turbine is accompanied with
intercooling, reheat and regeneration then

Heat supplied increases.

16. Heat & work are 

both is the path function.

17. When heat added to the system

we take positive sign.

18. In the steady flow,

stream line=Path line=
Streak line.

19. In which of the following fluid the shear stress is proportional to the rate of shear strain.

water.

SOLUTION.
Water is Newtonian fluid and in the Newtonian fluid shear stress is proportional to the rate of shear strain.

Technical Awareness mcq Quick points For upcoming exam.

01. Bin card is used for

storage system

SOLUTION 
Bin cards are printed cards used for accounting the stock of material in stores.

02. In ABC analysis, which type of inventories
is most valuable?

Answer:- A.

03. Which of the following instrument is used for the linear measurement?

Dial Indicator

Slip gauge

vernier caliper 

All of the above

Answer:- All of the above.

04. Which of the following device is used to measure elevated angles above
horizontal?

Clinometer.

05. Mcleod Gauge is used to

Measure vacuum by
application of the principle of Boyle's law.

06. CLA value and RMS value is used for
measurement of 

surface roughness.

07. Laser beam welding is used for

Welding very thin materials

SOLUTION
Laser welding is performed on relatively thin parts with no filler material.

08. Which of the following welding defect is caused by arc blow?

spatter.

SOLUTION

Spatter is caused by an arc blow, high
welding current and too low welding speed.

09. Granular flux is used in 

submerged arc
welding (SAW).

10. Hooke's law is valid upto the

proportionality limit.

11. When the bending moment is constant then

Shear force is zero.

12. In a bending moment diagram, point of contraflexure is a point where

Bending moment is Zero
And Bending moment changes its sign.

13. Proof resilience is defined as the
maximum energy absorbed by a

component within the elastic region.

14. Change in entropy during cyclic processes is

zero

SOLUTION
Entropy is a point function so, change inentropy for a cycle will be zero.

15. Air standard ericsson cycle is

Totally reversible cycle.

16. Under saturated condition wet bulb
depression is

100%.

17. Enthalpy of an ideal gas is a function of

temperature only.

18. Continuity equation represents the construction of

Mass.

19. A static fluid always have 

tensile stress &
zero shear stress.

20. In microhydel plant, the power output

between 100 KW to
1 MW.

Thursday, June 13, 2019

MECHANICAL ENGINEERING MODELS PAPER FOR UPCOMING ENGINEERING EXAM.

MECHANICAL ENGINEERING MODELS PAPER FOR UPCOMING ENGINEERING EXAM.


01. In white cast iron, presence of carbon is in form of

cementite.

02. The hot tearing in a metal casting is due to 

wide range of solidification temperature.

03. Misrun is a casting defect which occurs due to

insufficient fluidity of the molten metal.


04. During heat treatment of steel, the hardness of various structures in increasing order is

spherodite, coarse pearlite, fine pearlite, martensite.

05. Hardness of steel greatly improves with

cyaniding.

06. Fluid is a substance that flows under the
action of

Shearing forces.


07. Which of the following measuring deviceis used for measuring the rate of flow of a fluid flowing through a pipe

venturi meter
        &
Orifice meter

SOLUTION
Pitot tube generally measured the velocity at a point in the flow.

08. Which of the following methods can be used to increase efficiency of a Brayton cycIe?

Regeneration
Increasing pressure ratio
Heat exchanger

SOLUTION
A heat exchanger that acts as a counter-flow energy recovery device positioned within the supply and exhaust air streams of an air handling system, in order to recover the waste heat.


09. Engineering material is mostly ductile in nature. The decreasing order of ductility of basic crystalline structure of engineering material 

FCC>HCP>BCC

SOLUTION
BCC material is almost brittle in nature
and FCC has the highest ductility.
The correct order is FCC>HCP>BCC.

10. The compression test is carried out on

Brittle material.

11. A four cylinder 4 stroke inline engine is
not balanced for what kind of forces/couples?

secondary forces

SOLUTION
In case of 4 cylinder 4 srtoke inline
engine, only secondary forces remain
unbalanced.
Even though primary forces primary couples
secondary couples are balanced.

12. The defect responsible for slip which cause plastic deformation is widely known as

dislocation.

SOLUTION
Plastic deformation is a phenomenon
in which material undergoes permanent deformation and is main caused due to dislocation of the crystal structure.

13. On the motors with low starting torque,the type of clutch to be used

centrifugal clutch.

SOLUTION
Centrifugal clutch are used with low
starting torque.

14. During solidification of a pure molten metal, the grains in the casting near the mould wall are

coarse and randomly oriented.

15. Shear stress in fluids is directly proportional to

rate of shear strain.


SOLUTION
According to Newton's law of viscosity
Shear stress is directly proportional to
rate of shear strain.

16. Which of the following curves are used to calculate the size of riser

Caine curve.

SOLUTION
Caine curve gives the relation between
volume ratio, freezing ratio and shape
factor. It will give optimum results.

17. The"Jominy test"is used to find

Hardenability.

18. Metal removal in electric discharge
machining takes place through

melting and vaporization.

19. The resultant upward pressure of a fluid on a floating body is equal to the weightof the fluid displaced by the body. This isknown as

Buoyancy force.

20.A Household Fan is an example of

pump

SOLUTION
A household fans blades pushes and turns the air in the direction of the blade motion, therefore it acts as a pump not a blower. Blower forced away the air
radially.

Tuesday, June 11, 2019

Manufacturing Engineering 31 Questions & Answers.



01. Thermal cracking of tools occurs at

High temperature

Explanation: At high temperature tool may lose its hardness property which results in failure of tool and this phenomenon is known as thermal cracking.

02. Crater wear occurs at

Tool face

Explanation: Tool face is weaker for crater wear than shank or flank.

03. following is correct about crater wear.

Occurs more in soft tool

Explanation: Crater wear occurs in soft tools because their face gets eroded easily during flow of chips over the face.

04. Flank wear occurs at

Tool flank below cutting edge

Explanation: Tool flank are generally subjected to flank wear due to rubbing action of tool. Cutting edge may be side cutting edge or end cutting edge.

05. following will have a maximum amount of chips during machining.

Ductile material

Explanation: Ductile material produces more chip than brittle material.

06. In the orthogonal cutting of metals _________

the cutting edge of the tool is perpendicular to the direction of tool travel

Explanation: The cutting edge clears the width of the workpiece on either ends.

07. The factor responsible for the formation of discontinuous chips is


low cutting speed and small rake angle

Explanation: while high cutting speed and large rake angle of the tool will result in the formation of continuous chips.

08. Cutting forces can be measured using a

a) transducer
b) dynamometer
c) load cell
d) all of the mentioned.

Explanation: Cutting forces can be measured using a force transducer (typically with quartz piezoelectric sensors), a dynamometer, or a load cell (with resistance-wire strain gages placed on octagonal rings) mounted on the cutting-tool holder.

09. Crater wear occurs mainly on the

face of the cutting tool at a short distance from the cutting edge only

Explanation: Crater wear occurs on the rake face of the tool, while flank wear occurs on the relief (flank) face of the tool.

10. Crater wear is predominant in

tungsten carbide tools

Explanation: Crater wear is usually found while machining brittle materials and tungsten carbide tools favour this phenomenon.

11. Crater wear is mainly due to the phenomenon is known as

diffusion of metals

Explanation: Flank wear is due to the abrasive action and crater wear is due to diffusion of metals.

12. Crater wear leads to

a) increase in cutting temperature
b) weakening of tool
c) friction and cutting forces
d) all of the mentioned

13. Crater wear is usually found while machining 

brittle materials.

14. Flank wear occurs mainly on the

nose part, front relief face and side relief face of the cutting tool.

Explanation: Crater wear occurs on the rake face of the tool, while flank wear occurs on the relief (flank) face of the tool.

15. Tool life is generally better when

grain size of the metal is large.

16. The relation between the tool life(T) in minutes and cutting speed (V) in m/min is

VT^n = C

17. For machining a mild steel workpiece using carbide tool, the maximum material will be removed at a temperature of

100°c

18. For machining a mild steel workpiece by a high speed steel tool, the average cutting speed is

30 m/min

Explanation: For machining a cast iron workpiece by a high speed steel tool, the average cutting speed is 22 m/min and for a mild steel is 30 m/min.


23. Ceramic tools are fixed to a tool body by ___________

brazing

Explanation: These tools have greater tool life than carbide tools.

24. High speed steel tools retain their hardness upto a temperature of

900°c

25. In machining cast iron 

no cutting fluid is required.

26. The cutting fluid mostly used for machining alloy steels is :

sulphurised mineral oil.

27. The cutting fluid mostly used for machining steel is:

soluble oil.

Explanation: Soluble oils are used for machining metals of high machinability.

28. For turning internal tapers, the suitable method is

by a taper turning attachment.

29. Which of the following is also known as Puppet head?

Tailstock.

Explanation: Tailstock is also known as puppet head. It is at the back part of lathe machine.

30. following will give the best result for taper turning on the internal surface.

Using compound rest method.

31.  thread chasers is

Multipoint cutting tool.

Explanation: Thread chasers are multipoint cutting tool used for cutting threads.

Manufacturing Engineering Questions & Answers

Manufacturing Engineering Questions & Answers

01. Alloy of nickel and iron is known as :

Invar

Explanation: Invar contains 36% nickel and 64% iron. Invar has the property of good hardness.

02. Major constituent of the gun metal alloy is :

Copper

Explanation: Gun metal contains 83% copper, 10% tin, and 2% zinc. where copper is the base metal.

03. Major constituent of Mutz metal alloy is :

Copper.

Explanation: Mutz metal contains 60% copper and 40% zinc. where copper is the base metal.

04. Major constituent of Nichrome alloy is :

Nickel.

Explanation: Nichrome contains 80% nickel and 20% chromium. where nickel is the base metal.

05. Major constituent of Constantan alloy is :

Copper.

Explanation: Constantan contains 60% copper and 40% nickel. where copper is the base metal.

06. which alloy is widely used in thermo couples?

Nichrome.

Explanation: Nichrome contains 80% nickel and 20% chromium and used in thermo couples and strain gauges.

07. What is the approximate percentage of Lead in soft solder?

50.

Explanation: Soft solder contains 50% lead and 50% tin. It is used in a fabrication process of two material at a temperature below 450 degree centigrade.

08. Magnetic Bubbles are used as :

Storage device.

Explanation: Magnetic properties of material are used for making different storage devices.

09. With an increase in temperature of a semiconductor, resistance of semiconductor.

Decreases.

Explanation: Semiconductor has a negative temperature coefficient of resistance. Their resistance increases with a decrease in temperature.

10. Thermosetting plastics have

1 degree bond.

Explanation: Thermosetting plastics have 1 degree bond. Thermosetting plastics have three dimensional network of primary bond.

11. Primary bond network of thermosetting plastic is :

3-Dimensional.

Explanation: Thermosetting plastics have three dimensional network of a primary bond. Thermosetting plastics have 1 degree bond.

12. Thermoplastics have

2 degree bond.

Explanation: Thermoplastics have 2 degree bond. Thermoplastics have one dimensional network of a secondary bond.

13.following is a correct chemical property of quartz.

Acidic

Explanation: Quartz comes under acidic refractory.whereas sand, quartz and silica brick are acidic.

14. following is a chemically neutral refractory.

Silicon carbide.

Explanation: Silicon carbide is a neutral refractory.

15. Which of the ceramics can be used as pigment in paints?

Titanium oxide.

Explanation: Titanium oxide is generally used as pigment in paints. It has a very high density.

16. following will give better chip flow.

Positive back rake angle tool.

Explanation: With positive back rake angle, lip angle decreases and space for chip flow increases and hence it will give better chip flow.

17. following will give large friction during chip flow.

Negative back rake angle tool.

Explanation: With negative back rake angle, lip angle increases and space for chip flow decreases due to which it offers large resistance to chip flow.

18. Positive rake angle is given for machining of:

Ductile material.

Explanation: Positive rake angle have better chip flow. As the amount of chip flow in ductile material is large, hence positive back rake angle tool will be a better option for machining ductile material.

19. Negative back rake angle is given for machining of:

Brittle and hard material

Explanation: Brittle material has smaller amount of chip flow and are very strong. As negative back angle tool are very strong, hence these are used for machining of brittle and hard material.

20. following will give maximum chip flow during machining.

Ductile material.

Explanation: Brittle material breaks very easily due to which they have maximum chip flow.

21. With an increase in rake angle of tool, tool life will

First increase then decrease.

22. For machining of carbide material following tool will be preferred.

Large negative rake angle tools.

Explanation: Carbide materials are very hard hence strong tool is required for their machining. Tools with large negative back rake angle are stronger.

23. following tool will give the best result for machining of brass.


Zero rake angle tools

Explanation: Brass is neither very hard nor very soft and zero rake angle tool would be the best option for machining of brass.

24. With an increase in rake angle of tool, tool life will

First increase then decrease.

Explanation: With an increase in side cutting edge angle width of cut decreases, hence the chip removal rate is good due to which toll life increases. After some limit increasing side cutting angle will decrease tool life to increase in interaction of tool with work piece.

25. What is the optimum value of side cutting edge in degrees for maximum tool life?

30.

Answer: d

Explanation: At 30 degree chip removal rate and strength of tool are optimum and hence tool life will be maximum.

Monday, June 10, 2019

Manufacturing Engineering mcq.



1. Which of the following have a non-crystalline structure?

a) Iron
b) Quartz
c) Silica glass
d) Tungsten

Answer: c

Explanation: Silica glass and quartz both are the form of silica non-metal, out of which only quartz have the crystalline structure. Generally, Metals have a crystalline structure.

2. Which of the following have a non-crystalline structure?

a) Steel
b) Nickel
c) High density polythene
d) Low density polythene

Answer: d

Explanation: Remember High density polythene or HDP is a non-metal but has a crystalline structure, whereas steel and nickel are metal and have crystalline structure.

3. Which of the following is a characteristic of crystalline structure?

a) High density
b) Low density
c) Range of melting point
d) Varying structure

Answer: a

Explanation: Crystalline structures are closely packed and hence have the high density.

4. Which of the following is characteristic of non-crystalline structures?

a) Long range of periodicity
b) Well defined structure and geometry
c) Low density
d) Sharp diffraction pattern

Answer: c

Explanation: Non-crystalline structures are loosely packed. They have low density. Non-crystalline structures are formed by a weak secondary bond.

5. Which of the following factor is not responsible for the formation of a non-crystalline structure?

a) Atomic packing has open structure
b) Primary bonds are absent
c) Formation of 1-dimensional chain molecule
d) Strong secondary bond

Answer: d

Explanation: Non-crystalline structures are formed by a weak secondary bond. Non-crystalline structures are loosely packed.

06. Which one of the following is most symmetrical?

a) Simple cubic cell
b) Hexagonal
c) Triclinic
d) Tetragonal

Answer: a

Explanation: The Simple cubic have all angles and sides equal, hence that is most symmetric.

07. Which one of the following is least symmetrical?

a) Tetragonal
b) Simple cubic
c) Triclinic
d) Monoclinic

Answer: c

Explanation: Triclinic have all sides unequal and all angles is unequal.

08. Powder crystal method is used to determine crystal structures

a) True
b) False

Answer: a

Explanation: This is an experimental technique, used to determine crystal structure for the high symmetrical crystals.

09. Vacancy defects in solids is a sub type of :

a) Point Imperfections
b) Line Imperfections
c) Volume Imperfection
d) Surface Imperfection

Answer: a

Explanation: One or more atomic sites are vacant in vacancy defect. Vacancy defects in solids is a sub type of point imperfections.

10. Edge dislocation Imperfection is a sub type of:

a) Point Imperfections
b) Line Imperfections
c) Volume Imperfection
d) Surface Imperfection

Answer: b

11. Which one of the following is not zero dimensional defects?

a) Vacancy defect
b) Substitution Imperfection
c) Schottky’s defect
d) Screw dislocation

Answer: d

Explanation: Zero dimensional defects are the other name of Point Imperfection. Vacancy defects in solids is a sub type of point imperfections.

12. Twin or Twinning is a category of:

a) Point Imperfections
b) Line Imperfections
c) Volume Imperfection
d) Surface Imperfection

Answer: d

Explanation: In Twinning Arrangement of atoms is such that one side of twin boundary is the mirror replica of other side.

13. As grain size of metal increases, Strength of metal:

a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains constant
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a

Explanation: Strength of metal is inversely proportional to the size of a grain. Coarse are softer in nature while material having fine grain structure are hard in the nature.

14. As grain size of metal increases, Ductility of metal:

a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) remains constant
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b

Explanation: The Ductility of metal is directly proportional to the size of a grain. As the grain size of metal increases, Ductility of metal increases.

15. The property of material to resist any elastic deformation is known as :

a) Stiffness
b) Hardness
c) Malleability
d) Strength

Answer: a

Explanation: Stiffness is the property of a material to resist any elastic deformation. Larger the stiffness, larger is the ability to resist deformation.

16. Resistance developed by surface of any material is known as :

a) Strength
b) Hardness
c) Stiffness
d) Creep

Answer: b

Explanation: Hardness is a surface property. Resistance developed by surface of any material is known as hardness.

17. Permanent deformation of material with respect to time due to constant load and variable temperature is known as:

a) Elasticity
b) Isotropy
c) Hardness
d) Creep

Answer: d

Explanation: Creep is time and temperature dependent phenomenon. With the passage of time and other environmental condition, material may lead to fracture point.

18. Steel ball is used as indentor in which of the following test?

a) Brinell hardness test
b) Rockwell harness test
c) Vickers hardness test
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: a

Explanation: Steel ball is used as indentor in Brinell hardness test. It is used to test the hardness of substance.

19. In which of the following test specimen is in the form of the simply supported beam?

a) Izod test
b) Rockwell harness test
c) Charpy test
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: c

Explanation: Test specimen is in the form of simply supported beam in Charpy impact test. It is used to test the hardness of substance.

20.In which of the following test specimen is in the form of cantilever beam?

a) Izod test
b) Rockwell harness test
c) Charpy test
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: a

Explanation: Test specimen is in the form of cantilever beam in Charpy impact test.

21.Number of scales used Rockwell hardness test is :

a) 12
b) 14
c) 13
d) 17

Answer: c

Explanation: Total 13 scales named A, B, C, D etc are used in Rockwell hardness test.

22. Mohs hardness test has a scale range of

a) 0 to 10
b) 100 to 200
c) 0 to 1000
d) 0 to 3000

Answer: a

Explanation: Mohs hardness test has a scale range of 0 to 10.

23. Brinell’s hardness test has a scale range of

a) 0 to 10
b) 100 to 200
c) 0 to 1000
d) 0 to 3000

Answer: d

Explanation: Brinell’s hardness test has a scale range of 0 to 3000. Brinell hardness number of soft iron is ranges from 67 to500.

24. Rockwell’s hardness test has a scale range of

a) 0 to 10
b) 100 to 200
c) 0 to 1000
d) 0 to 3000

Answer: c

Explanation: Rockwell’s hardness test has a scale range of 0 to 1000. It is used to measure the hardness of a specimen.

25. Vicker’s hardness test has a scale range of

a) 0 to 10
b) 100 to 200
c) 0 to 1000
d) 0 to 3000

Answer: d

Explanation: Vicker’s hardness test has a scale range of 0 to 3000. It is used to measure the hardness of a specimen.

26. Brinell Hardness Number for soft iron is between

a) 1000-2000
b) 227-857
c) 67-500
d) 0-10

Answer: c

Explanation: Brinell hardness number of soft iron ranges from 67 to 500. It is used to measure the hardness of a specimen.

27. Which of the following compound is used for fine polishing?

a) Aluminum oxide
b) Nitric oxide
c) Silicon carbide
d) Iron oxide

Answer: a

Explanation: Powder form of aluminum oxide is used for fine polishing process. It is surface treatment process.

28. Etching of specimen is done to achieve

a) Visible grain boundary
b) Invisible grain boundary
c) Toughness
d) Hardness

Answer: a

Explanation: Etching is done to obtain visible grain boundary. It is a surface treatment process.

29. Equipment used for inspection of inside portion of hollow chamber or narrow tube is known as

a) Endoscope
b) Telescope
c) Borescope
d) Flexiscope

Answer: c

Explanation: Borescope is used for visual of inside portion of the hollow chamber.

30. Which of the following property will be more in fine grained structure?

a) Ductility
b) Corrosion resistance
c) Creep resistance
d) Hardness

Answer: a

Explanation: Fine grain structure can be easily made into wire and hence have more ductility.

31. Iron carbon phase diagram is

a) Unary phase
b) Binary phase
c) Tertiary phase
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b

Explanation: Iron carbon diagram is a binary phase diagram. Diagram which contains only two phases are known as binary phase diagram.

32. Which of the following material have carbon percentage between 2.1 to 4.3?

a) Dead steel
b) Mild steel
c) Medium carbon steel
d) Cast iron

Answer: d

Explanation: The percentage of carbon in cast iron lies between 2.1 to 2.3. Cast iron is brittle in nature.

33. Which of the following material have carbon percentage in the range from 4.3 to 6.67?

a) Pig iron
b) Mild steel
c) Medium carbon steel
d) Cast iron

Answer: a

Explanation: The percentage of carbon in Pig iron lies from 4.3 to 6.67. This form has less application in industries and usually converted to other forms for use.

34. Which of the following is soft in nature?

a) Coarse perliite
b) Fine perlite
c) Bainite
d) Martensite

Answer: a

Explanation: Coarse structure of coarse perlite makes them softer. Coarse structure has bigger grain size and are not arranged properly.

35.Which of the following is hardest in nature?

a) Coarse perliite
b) Fine perlite
c) Bainite
d) Martensite

Answer: d

Explanation: Fine structure of coarse martensite makes them hardest. Fine grains are very small in size and are orderly arranged.

36. Degree of freedom at a triple point is equal to :

a) 1
b) 10
c) 0
d) -1

Answer: c

Explanation: At triple point degree of freedom becomes zero. There is no possible movement in any plane at the triple point of any substance.

37. Wrought iron can be easily obtained by processing iron ore in:

a) Cupola
b) Bessemer converter
c) Pudding furnace
d) Blast furnace

Answer: c

Explanation: Iron from its pig iron form is converted to wrought iron in pudding furnace. As pig iron is very weak in strength hence it can not be used for practical purpose.

38. Steel can be easily obtained in:

a) Cupola
b) Blast furnace
c) Pudding furnace
d) Bessemer converter

Answer: d

Explanation: Iron from its pig iron form is converted to steel in Bessemer converter.As pig iron is very weak in strength hence it can not be used for practical purpose.

39. Abrasion resistance of an alloy steel can be improved using

a) Tungsten
b) Vanadium
c) Manganese
d) Titanium

Answer: d

Explanation: Titanium has very high abrasive resistance property. Titanium is used to improve abrasive resistance of base metal in an alloy.

40. Wear resistance of an alloy steel can be improved using

a) Tungsten
b) Vanadium
c) Manganese
d) Titanium

Answer: c

Explanation: Manganese has very high wear resistance property. Magnesium is alloyed with base metal to increase its wear resistance property.

41. Corrosion resistance of an alloy steel can be improved using

a) Tungsten
b) Vanadium
c) Chromium
d) Titanium

Answer: c

Explanation: Chromium has very high corrosion and oxidation resistance property. Chromium is alloyed with base metal to increase its corrosion resistance.

42. Tensile strength of an alloy steel can be improved using

a) Nickel
b) Vanadium
c) Manganese
d) Titanium

Answer: a

Explanation: Nickel can improve tensile strength as well as toughness of alloy steel. It is alloyed with base metal in small quantity.

43. Which of the following induces fine grain distribution in alloy steel?

a) Nickel
b) Vanadium
c) Manganese
d) Titanium

Answer: b

Explanation: Vanadium induces fine grain distribution in alloy steel. It helps in improving uniformity in the base metal.

Idioms mcq For Competitive Exams

Idioms mcq For Competitive Exams